One is that I see no need to grant redemption to Jephthah. If he were a worldly Gileadite who had honored his sacrificial promise to the death, I would see no reason to argue simply to “clear” the Bible of any accusation.

Two is that the text is ambiguous. It doesn’t give us a perfectly clear answer and my arguments are not “nonsense” but perfectly plausible interpretations of the text. I’ve evaluated the evidence and have decided that the intended meaning is as I’ve stated. If I’m wrong, the same text still applies in the same ways. In other words, your conclusion that the sacrifice did happen has no solid basis in the text either, so when weighing out the variety of factors at hand, I think I’m right (or would state otherwise).

Thanks for weighing in, but please understand my own need to sustain a spirit of respectful debate. Disagree with me anytime, but please choose your words in a way that stimulates discussion without insulting anyone’s intelligence.

Your conclusion that the sacrifice did not happen has no basis in the text nor in common sense and to me seems no more than a pathetic attempt to grant redemption where non is warranted.

Read the text with an open mind rather than the assumption that it is ‘devine’ or ‘inspired’ and you will see it for what it is!